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Article 331, which allowed President to nominate two members of Anglo-Indian community to Lok Sabha if not adequately represented, was omitted by which Constitutional Amendment?
- 103rd Amendment, 2019
- 104th Amendment, 2019
- 105th Amendment, 2021
- 106th Amendment, 2023
Answer: 104th Amendment, 2019
104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019: (a) Extended SC/ST reservation in Lok Sabha/Assemblies till 2030, (b) Omitted Article 331 (Anglo-Indian nomination to Lok Sabha) and Article 333 (Anglo-Indian nomination to State Assemblies). Rationale: Anglo-Indian community's distinct identity has diminished; reservation based on social/educational backwardness principle. Controversial but constitutionally valid.
Under Article 312, Parliament can create new All India Services if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by what majority?
- Simple majority
- Majority of total membership
- Two-thirds of members present and voting
- Unanimous approval
Answer: Two-thirds of members present and voting
Article 312(1): Rajya Sabha can pass resolution by 2/3 of members present and voting declaring it expedient in national interest to create new All India Services common to Union and States. Currently three AIS: IAS, IPS, IFoS. Proposed: Indian Forest Service already exists; Indian Judicial Service, Indian Education Service debated. Enables national-level administrative cadre while respecting federal structure.
Which statement best captures India's constitutional approach to language and regional diversity?
- Uniformity in language and administration across all States
- Complete autonomy for States in language and regional matters
- Balanced pluralism: promoting Hindi while protecting linguistic diversity and regional identities
- Exclusive focus on English for national integration
Answer: Balanced pluralism: promoting Hindi while protecting linguistic diversity and regional identities
Constitutional language/regional framework: (a) Promotes Hindi as Union official language (Article 343, 351) while allowing English continuation (Official Languages Act), (b) Recognizes 22 Eighth Schedule languages, (c) Allows States to adopt official languages (Article 345), (d) Grants special provisions to tribal/regionally distinct States (Articles 371 series, Fifth/Sixth Schedules). Balances national integration with respect for diversity; pragmatic pluralism as constitutional philosophy.
Which of the following languages was added to the Eighth Schedule most recently?
- Bodo
- Santhali
- Maithili
- All were added together in 2003
Answer: All were added together in 2003
92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003: Added four languages to Eighth Schedule simultaneously: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali. Total languages now 22. Inclusion criteria: literary heritage, distinct script, significant speaker population, cultural identity. No fixed procedure; added via constitutional amendment based on political consensus and linguistic advocacy.
Article 371F, inserted by the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975, provides special provisions for Sikkim including protection of existing laws, land ownership rights, and representation in Parliament. How many seats does Sikkim have in Lok Sabha?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Answer: 1
Article 371F (Sikkim): Special provisions on merger: (a) Protection of existing laws, (b) Land ownership rights for Sikkimese, (c) Reservation in government jobs/education, (d) 1 Lok Sabha seat, (e) 1 Rajya Sabha seat. Balances integration with Union while protecting Sikkim's unique identity, culture, and demographic concerns.
Under Article 344, the President shall constitute a Official Language Commission after ______ years from commencement of Constitution and thereafter at 10-year intervals.
- 3
- 5
- 10
- 15
Answer: 5
Article 344(1): President to constitute Official Language Commission: (a) After 5 years from Constitution commencement (1955 Commission), (b) Thereafter at 10-year intervals. Commission examines: progress in Hindi use, restrictions on English, promotion of Hindi, representation of Eighth Schedule languages. Recommendations guide language policy evolution.
Under Article 131, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes between States, including those relating to ______ boundaries which often have linguistic dimensions.
- river water
- inter-State
- coastal
- mineral
Answer: inter-State
Article 131: SC has exclusive original jurisdiction in federal disputes including inter-State boundary disputes. Many boundary disputes (e.g., Belagavi between Karnataka-Maharashtra) have linguistic dimensions. SC adjudicates based on: historical evidence, administrative convenience, linguistic affinity, people's wishes. Balances legal principles with socio-political realities in federal disputes.
Under Article 351, it is the duty of the Union to promote the spread of Hindi and develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for which elements of Indian culture?
- Only North Indian culture
- Composite culture of India
- Only Hindi-speaking States
- Only literary elements
Answer: Composite culture of India
Article 351: Union duty to promote Hindi development to serve as medium of expression for composite culture of India; secure richness by assimilating elements from Hindustani and other Eighth Schedule languages; draw vocabulary primarily from Sanskrit, secondarily from other languages. Balances Hindi promotion with linguistic diversity and cultural synthesis.
Under Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963, a Committee on Official Language is constituted to review progress in use of Hindi for official purposes. Who chairs this Committee?
- President of India
- Prime Minister of India
- Union Home Minister
- Chief Justice of India
Answer: Prime Minister of India
Section 4, Official Languages Act, 1963: Committee on Official Language comprises 30 MPs (20 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha); chaired by Prime Minister. Reviews progress in use of Hindi for official Union purposes, makes recommendations. Ensures parliamentary oversight of language policy implementation while promoting Hindi progressively.
Under Article 120, business in Parliament may be transacted in Hindi or English, and members may address the House in any language included in the ______ Schedule with presiding officer's permission.
- Seventh
- Eighth
- Ninth
- Tenth
Answer: Eighth
Article 120: Parliamentary business in Hindi/English; members may speak in any Eighth Schedule language with presiding officer's permission. Similar provision for State Legislatures under Article 210. Ensures linguistic diversity in legislative proceedings while maintaining efficiency through common official languages.
Article 343 of the Indian Constitution declares which language in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union?
- English
- Hindi
- Sanskrit
- Urdu
Answer: Hindi
Article 343(1): Official language of Union is Hindi in Devanagari script. International form of Indian numerals to be used for official purposes. However, Article 343(2) allowed English to continue for 15 years (till 1965) for official Union purposes. Official Languages Act, 1963 extended English indefinitely alongside Hindi for practical administration.
Which statement best captures the objective of the Anti-Defection Law in Indian democracy?
- Prevent all political realignments and mergers
- Curb opportunistic defections while allowing genuine ideological shifts
- Ensure complete party discipline on all legislative votes
- Transfer power from elected representatives to political parties
Answer: Curb opportunistic defections while allowing genuine ideological shifts
Tenth Schedule aims to: (a) Prevent horse-trading and unstable governments by curbing individual/small-group defections for personal gain, (b) Allow genuine realignments via merger exception (2/3 rule), (c) Maintain party discipline on critical votes while respecting dissent through condonation provision. Balance between stability and flexibility; ongoing reforms debated to address implementation gaps like Speaker bias and delayed decisions.
In February 2024, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme holding that it violated which fundamental right?
- Right to Equality (Article 14)
- Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
- Right to Information (implicit in Article 19)
- Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
Answer: Right to Information (implicit in Article 19)
Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India (2024): 5-judge bench unanimously struck down Electoral Bonds Scheme (2018) holding: (a) Anonymous political funding violates voters' right to know (implicit in Article 19(1)(a)), (b) Disproportionate impact on transparency, (c) Potential for quid pro quo corruption. Directed ECI to disclose bond donor-recipient details. Landmark transparency judgment.
In which case did the Supreme Court emphasize that the Speaker must decide disqualification petitions under Tenth Schedule within a reasonable time, failing which courts may intervene?
- Kihoto Hollohan case (1992)
- Keisham Meghachandra Singh case (2020)
- Nabam Rebia case (2016)
- Ravi Naik case (1994)
Answer: Keisham Meghachandra Singh case (2020)
Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Hon'ble Speaker Manipur Legislative Assembly (2020): SC held Speaker must decide Tenth Schedule petitions within reasonable time (suggested 3 months); unreasonable delay undermines law's efficacy. Court can intervene if delay causes irreversible harm. Highlighted need for parliamentary amendment to fix timeframe; reform still pending.
Under Section 29B of Representation of People Act, 1951, political parties can accept donations from individuals and companies, but donations above ______ must be disclosed to the Election Commission.
- ₹10,000
- ₹20,000
- ₹50,000
- ₹1,00,000
Answer: ₹20,000
Section 29B, R.P. Act: Political parties can accept donations; donations above ₹20,000 must be reported to ECI with donor details. Electoral Bonds Scheme (2018-2024) allowed anonymous donations via banks, but Supreme Court struck it down in 2024 (Association for Democratic Reforms case) citing transparency and right to information. Ongoing debate on political funding reforms.
Is there a specific time limit prescribed in the Tenth Schedule for the Speaker to decide disqualification petitions?
- Yes, 30 days
- Yes, 90 days
- Yes, 6 months
- No, no specific time limit
Answer: No, no specific time limit
Tenth Schedule doesn't prescribe time limit for Speaker's decision on disqualification petitions. Supreme Court in Keisham Meghachandra Singh case (2020) recommended Parliament amend Schedule to specify timeframe (e.g., 3 months) except in exceptional cases. Delayed decisions undermine anti-defection law's deterrent effect; reform pending.
Under Paragraph 2(1)(b) of Tenth Schedule, if a member votes contrary to whip, disqualification can be avoided if the party condones the act within how many days?
- 7 days
- 15 days
- 30 days
- 60 days
Answer: 15 days
Paragraph 2(1)(b) proviso: If member votes/abstains contrary to whip without prior permission, disqualification can be avoided if party condones the act within 15 days. Condonation must be explicit; implied approval insufficient. This allows parties flexibility to handle genuine dissent while maintaining discipline on critical votes.
Under the Tenth Schedule, questions of disqualification on grounds of defection are decided by the ______ of the House.
- Chief Justice
- President/Governor
- Speaker/Chairman
- Election Commission
Answer: Speaker/Chairman
Paragraph 6(1) of Tenth Schedule: Speaker of Lok Sabha/State Assembly or Chairman of Rajya Sabha/State Council decides disqualification petitions. Their decision is subject to judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan case, 1992). Controversy exists over Speaker's impartiality when belonging to ruling party; reforms debated to transfer power to independent tribunal.
Under the Tenth Schedule, defection is NOT deemed to have occurred if ______ of the members of a legislature party merge with another party.
- one-half
- two-thirds
- three-fourths
- all
Answer: two-thirds
Paragraph 4 of Tenth Schedule: Merger exception - disqualification doesn't apply if original party merges with another party, OR if not less than 2/3 of members of legislature party agree to merge. This allows genuine ideological realignments while preventing small-group defections. 91st Amendment removed 'split' exception (1/3 rule) to curb defections.
The Anti-Defection Law is contained in which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
- Ninth Schedule
- Tenth Schedule
- Eleventh Schedule
- Twelfth Schedule
Answer: Tenth Schedule
Tenth Schedule was inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 to curb political defections. It contains provisions for disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of defection. Aimed at promoting political stability and preventing horse-trading in legislatures.