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The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 allows transgender persons to self-perceive their gender identity and obtain a certificate of identity from the ______.
- District Magistrate
- High Court
- National Human Rights Commission
- Ministry of Social Justice
Answer: District Magistrate
Transgender Persons Act, 2019: Provides for: (a) Right to self-perceived gender identity, (b) Certificate of identity from District Magistrate (based on self-declaration), (c) Prohibition of discrimination in education, employment, healthcare, (d) Welfare measures: education, skill development, healthcare access. Criticisms: (a) Certificate requirement undermines self-declaration principle affirmed in NALSA judgment (2014), (b) Inadequate penalties for offences. Balances recognition with implementation concerns.
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005 guarantees ______ days of wage employment per household per year in rural areas.
- 50
- 100
- 150
- 200
Answer: 100
MGNREGA, 2005: Guarantees 100 days of unskilled manual wage employment per rural household per year at statutory minimum wages. Features: (a) Legal right to work, (b) Decentralized planning by Gram Sabhas, (c) 60:40 wage-material ratio, (d) Social audit mandatory, (e) Unemployment allowance if work not provided within 15 days. World's largest public works program; reduces distress migration, strengthens rural livelihoods, empowers women (1/3 participation mandate).
Under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, priority household beneficiaries are entitled to ______ kg of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices.
- 3
- 5
- 7
- 10
Answer: 5
NFSA, 2013: Entitlements: (a) Priority households: 5 kg/person/month at ₹3/kg rice, ₹2/kg wheat, ₹1/kg coarse grains, (b) Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households: 35 kg/household/month at same prices, (c) Pregnant/lactating women, children 6 months-14 years: nutritious meals, maternity benefit. Covers up to 75% rural, 50% urban population. World's largest food security program; implemented through PDS with Aadhaar seeding, portability.
The Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an online platform launched by the ______ to enable citizens to lodge grievances against any ministry/department/organization of the Government of India.
- Prime Minister's Office
- Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
- Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- NITI Aayog
Answer: Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
CPGRAMS: Launched by DARPG (Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances) in 2007. Features: (a) Online grievance submission, (b) Tracking via unique registration number, (c) Time-bound redressal, (d) Appeal mechanism, (e) Analytics for systemic improvements. Part of broader public grievance redressal reforms to make administration responsive and accountable. Complements RTI, Citizen's Charter, social audit mechanisms.
The Comptroller and Auditor General audits government expenditure, the Central Vigilance Commission addresses corruption, and the Lokpal investigates corruption allegations against public functionaries; together they form a multi-layered ______ framework for governance.
- financial
- accountability
- legislative
- judicial
Answer: accountability
India's accountability architecture: (a) CAG: Financial accountability through audit, (b) CVC: Vigilance administration and corruption prevention, (c) Lokpal/Lokayuktas: Independent investigation of corruption against high functionaries, (d) Information Commissions: Transparency through RTI, (e) Parliamentary committees: Legislative oversight. Multi-layered framework ensures checks and balances; effectiveness depends on independence, capacity, and political will for implementation.
Under Section 20 of the RTI Act, the Information Commission can impose a penalty of up to ₹______ per day on a Public Information Officer for unreasonable delay in providing information, subject to maximum of ₹25,000.
- 100
- 250
- 500
- 1000
Answer: 250
RTI Act, Section 20(1): Information Commission can impose penalty of ₹250 per day on PIO for: (a) Unreasonable delay, (b) Malafidely denying request, (c) Knowingly giving incomplete/incorrect/misleading information, (d) Destroying information. Maximum penalty: ₹25,000. Also recommends disciplinary action under service rules. Penalty provision ensures accountability of PIOs and effectiveness of RTI regime.
Under the RTI Act, 2005, the Public Information Officer must provide information within ______ days of receipt of request, or 48 hours if concerning life/liberty.
- 15
- 30
- 45
- 60
Answer: 30
RTI Act, Section 7(1): PIO must provide information within 30 days of request. Section 7(1) proviso: If information concerns life/liberty, must be provided within 48 hours. Section 7(3): If request transferred to another public authority, 30 days computed from receipt by transferee. Time-bound response ensures prompt access to information; penalties for delay promote accountability of public authorities.
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines the audit reports of the ______ to ensure financial accountability of the executive.
- Reserve Bank of India
- Comptroller and Auditor General
- Finance Commission
- NITI Aayog
Answer: Comptroller and Auditor General
Public Accounts Committee (PAC): Oldest parliamentary committee (1921). Functions: (a) Examine CAG reports on Union/State accounts, (b) Ensure expenditure was within grants, (c) Detect waste, extravagance, corruption, (d) Recommend corrective action. Composition: 22 members (15 LS, 7 RS); Chairperson from Opposition by convention. Critical mechanism for legislative financial oversight of executive.
The Whistle Blowers Protection Act was enacted in ______ but has not been fully brought into force due to concerns about national security exemptions.
- 2011
- 2014
- 2016
- 2019
Answer: 2014
Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014: Enacted to protect persons making public interest disclosures about corruption, misuse of power, etc., by public servants. Provides mechanism for inquiry, protection against victimization. However, not fully notified due to debates on balancing transparency with national security (proposed amendments to exempt certain categories of information). Highlights tension between accountability and security in governance.
Under the Lokpal Act, 2013, the Prime Minister is brought under Lokpal's jurisdiction with certain exceptions relating to allegations concerning ______ and public order.
- corruption
- international relations
- financial misconduct
- administrative inefficiency
Answer: international relations
Lokpal Act, 2013: PM under Lokpal jurisdiction but with safeguards: (a) No inquiry into allegations relating to international relations, external security, public order, atomic energy, space, (b) Inquiry requires approval of full bench of Lokpal (Chairperson + at least 2 members), (c) Proceedings held in camera, (d) Complaint dismissed if frivolous/vexatious. Balances accountability with practical governance needs in sensitive areas.
Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and up to ______ members, of which 50% shall be judicial members.
- 4
- 6
- 8
- 10
Answer: 8
Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013: Lokpal consists of Chairperson (former CJI or SC Judge) + up to 8 members (50% judicial: former SC Judges/HC Chief Justices; 50% non-judicial: persons of integrity with 25+ years experience in anti-corruption policy, public administration, finance, law, management). Appointed by President on recommendation of selection committee: PM, Speaker, LoP, CJI/nominee, eminent jurist. Ensures expertise and independence in anti-corruption adjudication.
In Divisional Manager, Aravali Golf Club v. Chander Hass (2007), the Supreme Court cautioned that judicial activism must not cross the line into ______, respecting separation of powers.
- judicial restraint
- judicial overreach
- legislative inaction
- executive discretion
Answer: judicial overreach
Divisional Manager (2007): SC cautioned: (a) Judicial activism necessary to protect rights, fill legislative vacuum, (b) But must not cross into judicial overreach (usurping legislative/executive functions), (c) Courts should exercise self-restraint, respect separation of powers, (d) Policy matters best left to elected branches unless constitutional violation. Balances judicial role in rights protection with democratic accountability.
In P. Ramachandra Rao v. State of Karnataka (2002), the Supreme Court clarified that right to speedy trial under Article 21 is not an absolute right and courts must balance the interests of the accused, victim, and society while determining ______.
- bail conditions
- reasonable period
- compensation amount
- appeal jurisdiction
Answer: reasonable period
P. Ramachandra Rao (2002): SC clarified Hussainara Khatoon: right to speedy trial under Article 21 is not absolute; no fixed time limit. Courts must balance: (a) Nature of offence, (b) Number of accused/witnesses, (c) Workload of court, (d) Prejudice to accused/victim. If delay unreasonable and attributable to prosecution, court may quash proceedings or award compensation. Pragmatic approach to procedural justice.
In Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court declared the practice of instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) unconstitutional as violating Article ______ (right to equality).
- 14
- 15
- 19
- 21
Answer: 14
Shayara Bano (2017): 3:2 majority held instant triple talaq (pronouncing talaq thrice in one sitting) unconstitutional: (a) Violates Article 14 (arbitrary, manifestly unreasonable), (b) Not protected under Article 25 (not essential practice of Islam), (c) Parliament later enacted Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 criminalizing instant triple talaq. Landmark gender justice judgment.
In Common Cause v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court recognized the right to die with dignity as part of Article 21 and allowed ______ (advance medical directive) subject to safeguards.
- active euthanasia
- passive euthanasia
- assisted suicide
- mercy killing
Answer: passive euthanasia
Common Cause (2018): 5-judge bench held: (a) Right to die with dignity is part of Article 21, (b) Passive euthanasia (withdrawing life support) permissible for terminally ill patients in persistent vegetative state, (c) Living will (advance medical directive) valid subject to strict safeguards: medical board certification, judicial oversight, etc. Active euthanasia/assisted suicide remains illegal. Balances autonomy with sanctity of life.
In SR Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court held that ______ is part of the basic structure of the Constitution and State action promoting one religion over others violates constitutional secularism.
- Federalism
- Secularism
- Socialism
- Democracy
Answer: Secularism
SR Bommai (1994): Besides federalism, SC held secularism is part of basic structure. Secularism means: (a) State has no religion, (b) Equal respect for all religions, (c) No discrimination based on religion, (d) Religion and politics separated. State action promoting one religion violates secularism; can be ground for judicial review of Presidential proclamation under Article 356. Foundation of Indian secularism jurisprudence.
In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak case, 1987), the Supreme Court evolved the principle of ______ liability for enterprises engaged in hazardous activities, making them absolutely liable for harm caused.
- vicarious
- strict
- absolute
- contributory
Answer: absolute
M.C. Mehta (Oleum Gas Leak, 1987): SC evolved 'absolute liability' principle: enterprises engaged in hazardous/inherently dangerous activities are absolutely liable for harm caused, without exceptions available under strict liability (Rylands v. Fletcher). No defense of act of God, third party, etc. Foundation for environmental jurisprudence; led to compensation for Bhopal victims, pollution control measures.
In S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), the Supreme Court relaxed the rule of ______ to allow public-spirited persons to file petitions for enforcement of rights of disadvantaged groups, pioneering Public Interest Litigation in India.
- stare decisis
- locus standi
- natural justice
- separation of powers
Answer: locus standi
S.P. Gupta (First Judges Case, 1981): SC relaxed locus standi (personal injury requirement), allowing any citizen/public-spirited organization to file petition for enforcement of rights of persons unable to approach court due to poverty, ignorance, or social disadvantage. Transformed judicial role from dispute resolution to social justice delivery; foundation of PIL jurisprudence in India.
In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment holding that ______ and ______ are complementary and neither has primacy over the other.
- Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles
- Union, States
- Executive, Legislature
- Centre, Judiciary
Answer: Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles
Minerva Mills (1980): SC struck down parts of 42nd Amendment that gave primacy to DPSP over FRs and excluded judicial review of amendments. Held: (a) Balance between FRs (Part III) and DPSP (Part IV) is basic structure, (b) Judicial review is part of basic structure, (c) Limited amending power is basic structure. Reinforced Kesavananda doctrine; cornerstone of constitutional jurisprudence.
The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports of the ______ and has ______ members (15 from Lok Sabha + 7 from Rajya Sabha).
Answer: Comptroller and Auditor General, 22
The Committee on Public Undertakings (CPU) has 22 members (15 LS + 7 RS) and examines reports of the CAG on public sector undertakings. It assesses efficiency, financial performance, and autonomy of PSUs. Like PAC, its Chairman is traditionally from the Opposition, ensuring non-partisan scrutiny of government enterprises.